suddenly, he had thrown the same result a million times before this
It's a kind of cognitive bias. When throwing numbers 1-2 twice, we have a low chance of throwing a 1 twice, right?
1, 1
1, 2
2, 1
2, 2
Four possible outcomes. The probability of (1,1) = 1/4
But... if you've already thrown a 1... the possible outcomes are (1, 1) and (1, 2), the other two are impossible. So the probability of throwing a 1 again is 1/2, just like with an independent throw.