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#596
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Iamsamstan
I don't know how right I am, but it seems to me that in the final, both should be equal, and moreover, the one who came from the losers' bracket plays one more game, and both have the same number of wins, and such a situation is a product of the double-elimination scheme, while in a Bo3 with +1 for the winner, there are still more chances to win.

But why should they be equal? The winner of the upper bracket has already, in a way, won the tournament. And, it is quite possible that he has already won against the winner of the lower bracket. The loser had the right to make a mistake; losing in the upper bracket did not deprive him of the chance to win the tournament. Reaching the grand final, the winner, having an advantage of one win, also gets the right to this mistake.

The loser must prove that his defeat was accidental. So why should they have equal chances? The winner should have an advantage.