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Again, two questions:
1) First, the previous tie-break system was a very cleverly designed and specific Swiss system. And it's unrealistic to apply its principles one-to-one to something else.
2) There was a rule. So what? Were there really no pre-arranged draws in the last two rounds? Including those that affected Buchholz and other players, including those who, because of Buchholz, did or did not qualify for the tie-break?
sir Davos Seaworth
If there is no report, no one asked to appoint an odd-man-out, or a judge's decision, then both receive a loss.
Why? Give at least one example of a situation where this has a real impact.